DMLT, Bsc. MLT Govt. Exam Paper Practice, University Exam, Paper-1

 

Here are 50 more important MCQ questions for DMLT exam with options and answers (MCQ format). These questions are also based on various subjects like pathology, biochemistry, haematology, microbiology, serology, blood banking, urinalysis, parasitology, etc.

Top 50 DMLT MCQs

🩸 Haematology (1–10)

1. Which anticoagulant is used for CBC test?

A) Heparin

B) Sodium citrate

C) EDTA ✔

D) Fluoride

2. Normal hemoglobin in adult male is:

A) 10–12 g/dL

B) 14–18 g/dL ✔

C) 8–10 g/dL

D) 5–8 g/dL

3. Shape of RBC is:

A) Spherical

B) Oval

C) Biconcave ✔

D) Elongated

4. Which is a granulocyte?

A) Lymphocyte

B) Monocyte

C) Eosinophil ✔

D) Platelet

5. Normal WBC count is:

A) 2000–6000

B) 10000–20000

C) 4000–11000 ✔

D) 500–1000

6. What is the normal platelet count?

A) 20,000–40,000

B) 1.5–4 lakhs ✔

C) 5–10 lakhs

D) 50–80,000

7. Which stain is used for reticulocyte count?

A) Leishman

B) Giemsa

C) Supravital ✔

D) Gram

8. ESR is measured by:

A) Neubauer chamber

B) Wintrobe tube ✔

C) Capillary tube

D) Glass slide

9. Hemocytometer is used for:

A) Hemoglobin test

B) RBC and WBC count ✔

C) ESR

D) Clotting time

10. Prothrombin time evaluates:

A) RBC function

B) Clotting factors ✔

C) Platelet count

D) Iron deficiency

🧪 Biochemistry (11–20)

11. Enzyme elevated in liver disease:

A) Amylase

B) Lipase

C) SGPT ✔

D) Pepsin

12. Fasting blood sugar normal value:

A) 100–120 mg/dL

B) 70–100 mg/dL ✔

C) 140–160 mg/dL

D) 60–70 mg/dL

13. The organ that secretes insulin:

A) Liver

B) Pancreas ✔

C) Kidney

D) Stomach

14. Which method is used for glucose estimation?

A) Biuret

B) GOD-POD ✔

C) Nessler

D) Molisch

15. Test for kidney function:

A) SGOT

B) Creatinine ✔

C) HbA1c

D) CRP

16. Which vitamin is fat-soluble?

A) B1

B) B12

C) C

D) A ✔

17. Which lipid is considered good cholesterol?

A) LDL

B) VLDL

C) HDL ✔

D) Triglycerides

18. The normal range of serum urea:

A) 10–20 mg/dL

B) 20–40 mg/dL ✔

C) 60–100 mg/dL

D) 100–200 mg/dL

19. Test for long-term sugar control:

A) FBS

B) RBS

C) HbA1c ✔

D) OGTT

20. Which hormone regulates glucose?

A) Thyroxine

B) Adrenaline

C) Insulin ✔

D) Glucagon

🦠 Microbiology (21–30)

21. Gram-positive bacteria stain:

A) Pink

B) Red

C) Violet ✔

D) Green

22. Causative organism of TB:

A) Salmonella

B) E. coli

C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis ✔

D) Vibrio cholerae

23. Autoclaving is done at:

A) 100°C

B) 121°C ✔

C) 140°C

D) 160°C

24. Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used for:

A) Fungi

B) Virus

C) TB ✔

D) Protozoa

25. Bacteria grow best in:

A) Sunlight

B) Agar ✔

C) Freezer

D) Distilled water

26. Which bacteria is Gram-negative?

A) Staphylococcus

B) Streptococcus

C) E. coli ✔

D) Bacillus

27. Culture media used for fungi:

A) MacConkey

B) Blood agar

C) Sabouraud agar ✔

D) Nutrient broth

28. Fungal infection is called:

A) Bacteremia

B) Mycosis ✔

C) Septicemia

D) Anaerobiasis

29. Which organelle helps in bacterial motility?

A) Pili

B) Cilia

C) Flagella ✔

D) Ribosome

30. Which virus causes AIDS?

A) HBV

B) HCV

C) HIV ✔

D) HSV

🧬 Serology/Immunology (31–40)

31. Widal test is used to detect:

A) TB

B) Typhoid ✔

C) HIV

D) Malaria

32. ELISA test is used for:

A) Dengue

B) HIV ✔

C) Hepatitis A

D) Malaria

33. HBsAg is associated with:

A) HIV

B) Hepatitis B ✔

C) Hepatitis A

D) Typhoid

34. CRP test is for:

A) Viral fever

B) Inflammation ✔

C) Allergy

D) Blood grouping

35. RA factor indicates:

A) Asthma

B) Rheumatoid arthritis ✔

C) Diabetes

D) HIV

36. ASO titer is done in:

A) Typhoid

B) Streptococcal infection ✔

C) TB

D) HIV

37. Which antibody is produced first in infection?

A) IgA

B) IgG

C) IgM ✔

D) IgE

38. VDRL is a test for:

A) Hepatitis

B) Syphilis ✔

C) Dengue

D) Typhoid

39. Western blot is used to confirm:

A) HIV ✔

B) TB

C) Hepatitis

D) Diabetes

40. Dengue is diagnosed using:

A) NS1 Antigen ✔

B) CRP

C) Widal

D) HBsAg

🚽 Urinalysis & Pathology (41–50)

41. Normal urine color is:

A) Red

B) Yellow ✔

C) Blue

D) Green

42. Specific gravity of urine is:

A) 1.005–1.030 ✔

B) 1.100–1.200

C) 0.5–1.0

D) 2.0–3.0

43. Ketone bodies in urine are found in:

A) Diabetes ✔

B) Jaundice

C) TB

D) Malaria

44. Test used to detect protein in urine:

A) Benedict's test

B) Sulfosalicylic acid test ✔

C) Barfoed's test

D) Biuret test

45. First morning urine is best for:

A) Sugar

B) Protein

C) Pregnancy test ✔

D) Bacteria

46. RBC in urine indicates:

A) Jaundice

B) Hematuria ✔

C) Albuminuria

D) Dehydration

47. Casts in urine are formed in:

A) Liver

B) Bladder

C) Kidney ✔

D) Intestine

48. Which crystal is common in acidic urine?

A) Uric acid ✔

B) Calcium oxalate

C) Triple phosphate

D) Cystine

49. Foamy urine indicates:

A) High glucose

B) Proteinuria ✔

C) Ketones

D) Normal

50. Bilirubin in urine indicates:

A) Kidney failure

B) Liver disease ✔

C) UTI

D) Diabetes

The DMLT (Diploma in Medical Laboratory Technology) program is designed to equip students with the technical skills and scientific understanding required for laboratory diagnostics. As part of their academic journey and final exams, students are expected to be familiar with a broad range of subjects, including pathology, biochemistry, haematology, microbiology, serology, blood banking, urinalysis, and parasitology. Mastery of these subjects is often assessed through multiple-choice questions (MCQs), which test not only the candidate’s theoretical understanding but also their ability to recall and apply clinical concepts quickly.

DMLT MCQs (51-100)

🩸 Hematology / Pathology (51–60)

51. Bleeding time is prolonged in:

A) Leukemia

B) Thrombocytopenia ✔

C) Polycythemia

D) Anemia

52. Normal clotting time is:

A) 8–15 sec

B) 2–5 min

C) 5–10 min ✔

D) 15–20 min

53. Heinz bodies are seen in:

A) G6PD deficiency ✔

B) Thalassemia

C) Iron deficiency

D) Leukemia

54. Hematocrit measures:

A) WBC %

B) Platelet %

C) RBC % ✔

D) Plasma %

55. Punched-out lesions are seen in:

A) Hemophilia

B) Multiple myeloma ✔

C) Malaria

D) Filariasis

56. Howell-Jolly bodies are:

A) Nuclear remnants ✔

B) RBC enzymes

C) Platelet fragments

D) Plasma proteins

57. Basophilic stippling indicates:

A) Lead poisoning ✔

B) TB

C) Leukemia

D) Jaundice

58. Normal ESR in men (Westergren):

A) 0–10 mm/hr ✔

B) 0–5 mm/hr

C) 20–40 mm/hr

D) 50–70 mm/hr

59. Methaemoglobin is:

A) Reduced Hb

B) Oxidized Hb ✔

C) Carboxy Hb

D) Normal Hb

60. Prothrombin is synthesized in:

A) Bone marrow

B) Spleen

C) Liver ✔

D) Kidney

🧬 Biochemistry (61–70)

61. Uric acid is increased in:

A) Gout ✔

B) Diabetes

C) Hepatitis

D) Hypothyroidism

62. Enzyme for myocardial infarction diagnosis:

A) SGPT

B) Amylase

C) LDH ✔

D) Urease

63. Electrolyte that maintains water balance:

A) Potassium

B) Sodium ✔

C) Calcium

D) Magnesium

64. Creatinine is a waste product of:

A) Protein

B) Muscle metabolism ✔

C) Fat

D) Glucose

65. Which test detects albumin in serum?

A) Biuret test

B) Bromocresol green ✔

C) Benedict's test

D) Barfoed's test

66. Enzyme elevated in acute pancreatitis:

A) Lipase ✔

B) Urease

C) LDH

D) Creatine kinase

67. RBS means:

A) Random Blood Sugar ✔

B) Rapid blood screen

C) Red blood screen

D) Resting blood sample

68. HbA1c reflects sugar control over:

A) 1 week

B) 2 weeks

C) 1 month

D) 2–3 months ✔

69. Hypocalcemia is deficiency of:

A) Magnesium

B) Potassium

C) Calcium ✔

D) Sodium

70. Hyperbilirubinemia causes:

A) Pallor

B) Jaundice ✔

C) Cyanosis

D) Edema

🦠 Microbiology (71–80)

71. Bacteria reproduce by:

A) Binary fission ✔

B) Mitosis

C) Meiosis

D) Budding

72. Motility test for bacteria is done using:

A) Nutrient agar

B) Hanging drop method ✔

C) Slide culture

D) Gram stain

73. Virus that infects liver:

A) HIV

B) HBV ✔

C) HSV

D) Rabies

74. Leprosy is caused by:

A) Mycobacterium leprae ✔

B) Treponema

C) Candida

D) E. coli

75. Anaerobic bacteria example:

A) Clostridium ✔

B) E. coli

C) Vibrio

D) Salmonella

76. Acid-fast stain is used for:

A) Gram-negative

B) Acid-fast bacilli ✔

C) Fungi

D) Protozoa

77. Bacteria that grow in high salt:

A) Halophiles ✔

B) Thermophiles

C) Mesophiles

D) Psychrophiles

78. Catalase test differentiates:

A) Streptococcus and Staphylococcus ✔

B) TB and Typhoid

C) Fungi and bacteria

D) Virus and bacteria

79. Name of fungal infection of skin:

A) Dermatophytosis ✔

B) Aspergillosis

C) Candidiasis

D) Histoplasmosis

80. Lancefield classification is for:

A) Streptococci ✔

B) Staphylococci

C) Mycobacteria

D) Enterobacter

🧪 Serology & Blood Banking (81–90)

81. Blood group discovered by:

A) Pasteur

B) Karl Landsteiner ✔

C) Jenner

D) Koch

82. Universal donor blood group is:

A) AB+

B) O+

C) O– ✔

D) A–

83. Cross-matching is done before:

A) Urine test

B) Blood transfusion ✔

C) Glucose test

D) Biopsy

84. Rh factor is a type of:

A) Bacteria

B) Antigen ✔

C) Antibody

D) Hormone

85. Coombs test is used in:

A) Anemia

B) Hemolytic disease ✔

C) Diabetes

D) HIV

86. Which is not a serological test?

A) Widal

B) CRP

C) ELISA

D) CT scan ✔

87. Anti-D is given to:

A) Rh-positive mother

B) Rh-negative mother ✔

C) AB+ patient

D) B– patient

88. Major crossmatch detects:

A) Recipient antibody vs donor RBC ✔

B) Donor antibody

C) WBC count

D) Platelet count

89. Direct Coombs test detects:

A) Free antibodies

B) Bound antibodies ✔

C) HIV antigen

D) DNA

90. Hepatitis B vaccine is:

A) Live

B) Killed

C) Recombinant ✔

D) Attenuated

🧫 Urine / Parasitology / Misc. (91–100)

91. Bile salts in urine cause:

A) Red color

B) Foamy urine ✔

C) Clear urine

D) Acidic urine

92. Ova in stool is detected by:

A) Saline mount ✔

B) Benedict test

C) ELISA

D) RPR test

93. Malarial parasite in blood is seen in:

A) RBC ✔

B) WBC

C) Plasma

D) Platelets

94. Hookworm causes:

A) Anemia ✔

B) Jaundice

C) Tuberculosis

D) Diabetes

95. Schistosoma is a:

A) Fungi

B) Bacteria

C) Blood fluke ✔

D) Protozoa

96. Typhoid is spread by:

A) Mosquito

B) Fecal-oral route ✔

C) Air

D) Vector

97. BCG vaccine is for:

A) TB ✔

B) Typhoid

C) Hepatitis

D) AIDS

98. Malaria is diagnosed by:

A) Blood smear ✔

B) Urine

C) Stool

D) ELISA

99. Microfilaria best time for test:

A) Afternoon

B) Morning

C) Midnight ✔

D) Anytime

100. Which stain is used for blood smear?

A) Leishman ✔

B) Gram

C) Ziehl-Neelsen

D) India ink

In pathology, the fundamental identification of disease processes in tissues is at the heart of a lot of MCQs. A few examples include cytopathology, necrosis, the classification of the tumor, and inflammation. One might be tested on their ability to identify malignant features under a microscope or on the types of necrosis (coagulative, liquefactive, and caseous). 

Biochemistry MCQs often test knowledge related to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, enzymes, and metabolic pathways such as glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and urea cycle. Commonly asked questions include enzyme normal ranges, deficiency diseases, or which vitamins act as coenzymes. Candidates are expected to recall values such as normal fasting blood glucose levels and the principle behind biochemical tests like Benedict’s, Biuret, or Seliwanoff’s tests.

Haematology questions typically revolve around complete blood counts, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), haemoglobin estimation techniques, and the identification of different types of anemia. MCQs in this field may ask about anticoagulants used in blood collection (e.g., EDTA for CBC), the components of a peripheral blood smear, or the differences between leukocytosis and leukopenia.

Serology is another crucial topic with questions on antigen-antibody reactions, serological tests like Widal, VDRL, ELISA, and Rapid Diagnostic Tests (RDTs). Candidates must be able to interpret test results, understand sensitivity and specificity, and know common diagnostic markers used for diseases like typhoid, syphilis, HIV, and hepatitis.

Blood banking-related MCQs delve into blood grouping (ABO and Rh systems), cross-matching, storage conditions, and transfusion reactions. Students are expected to know the basic principles of blood compatibility, the importance of using anticoagulants like CPDA, and the conditions required for safe blood preservation.

Urinalysis forms a key part of the DMLT syllabus. MCQs in this category include tests for sugar, protein, ketone bodies, and microscopic examination of urinary sediment. Questions often require students to identify casts, crystals, or cells in urine and understand the clinical significance of abnormal findings like hematuria or glycosuria.

Parasitology contributes another important component, with questions about the life cycles, morphology, and pathology of common parasites like Entamoeba histolytica, Plasmodium vivax, Giardia lamblia, and Ascaris lumbricoides. Knowing how to prepare and examine stool samples, perform wet mounts, and identify oocysts or trophozoites is critical.

Together, these 50 additional MCQs help students reinforce important concepts and prepare for comprehensive testing in the DMLT examination. While theoretical knowledge is essential, the format of MCQs ensures that students also gain speed and accuracy in applying what they’ve learned. Regular practice, along with understanding the logic behind each question, is the key to success in DMLT and further career growth in medical laboratory sciences.